On Mon, Sep 26, 2016, at 23:20, Tim Armstrong wrote:
So you own a piece of land and want to sell a small part of that land to someone, so you agree on a price, sign a contract, pay VAT on the transaction, and now the land sold more belongs to the buyer. Contract law 101.
Now let's apply your logic: so you own a piece of land and want to sell a small piece of that land to someone, so you agree on a price, sign a contract, pay VAT on the transaction, and now the land belongs to someone else who the buyer now leases it of for a fee.
Now correct me if I'm wrong, but I don't think that would make sense to a lawyer.
Depending on where in the world you live, things may not be that way: Especially, you don't juste sell the land (all of it or part, doesn't matter) for the simple fact that you were sitting there for quite some time. Supposing that the ownership part is fixed, you can only sell it to someone that can be identified (usually meaning it is registered somewhere). Legally, there is no property transfer if it isn't registerend in the "land register" (or whatever it's called), which usually can't happen unless some of the previous criteria (and some other are fulfilled). Ah, and you don't pay the VAT for land transfers (but you must pay other fees). But that all comes to "Is it really, really, really property ? Everywhere ?"