Now a customer would like to get a static ip but does not want ONE static IP address? PA, I assume?
Yes, PA.
If the customers sends a RIPE-141 request to the ISP, can the ISP assign a range but not route it to the customer?
... which would be extremely useful for ???
In order to force the customer to buy a more expensive service which includes fixed ip! Please understand that nor I nor my employer is doing this or even advocating this practice. To the contrary: I'm just observing that it happens and am so displeased about this that I am looking for ways to counter it.
Can it refuse the request on the grounds that it cannot route the assigned range to a dynamic ip?
... so, you want to rent a house and put a security guard on the entrance door not allowing people who bought it to move in. Interesting ...
I think it is more appropriate to state that someone is looking for a house but all landlords he meets will move his front door every day unless he pays tripple rent. I suppose the question can be phrased more theoretically as: "If a LIR is obliged to assign address space (is it?), wouldn't it make sense to oblige a provider to route it" or the other way'round: "If an address space request is made, is the non-willingness of an ISP to route it sufficient grounds to deny the request?"
Well, there is no formal policy obligation for you to route the addresses you assigned, but what would those addresses then be good for?
That's the point. Can the customer somehow (e.g. by submitting a ripe-141) force the ISP to assign him a static ip address? Or will it get him nowhere? BTW, you seem to assume that I represent the ISP, not the customer. Perhaps I should have added that I posed this question partly out of practical personal interest as a home user interested in ADSL, and partly out of theoretical professional interest as an employee at a LIR. So I tried to state the case in an objective fashion :) regards, Herbert