Le Fri, Mar 07, 2003 at 09:45:35AM +0100, Christian Strauf a ecrit:
Hi Gert!
IPv4 is still used, of course, as all customers still need IPv4 connectivity.
v6-only might work (if the client refuses IPCP), but we never tried that yet. So, if I understand you correctly, you simply dial-up and establish a normal DSL-connection via PPPoE (v4) and then assign an IPv6-address to the ppp-interface, right? Please excuse my probably trivial questions, but I'm pretty new to PPPoE in connection with IPv6. How exactly is the v6-address (or is it a whole prefix?) assigned at your customer's end? We would like to do some tests ourselves with IPv6-only dialup and I would like to find out wether or not I can leave out all v4-parts of the connection. If this is starting to get off-topic, I would really appreciate, if you could send me a private mail regarding this matter. TNX a lot in advance!
The PPP session include a IP6CP negociation The only adress negociated is the link local one For the prefix (and the Global Unicast Adress in general), you have 3 solutions : 1) "White Paper protocol" : you write the prefix on a sheet of paper, you give it to the custommer and he configures his router. The prefix is static. 2) Use of a new ICMP message 3) DHCPv6 it seems that 3 is a good candidate -- Xavier Henner