On Jun 30, "Ronald F. Guilmette" <rfg@tristatelogic.com> wrote:

And conversely, why did RIPE, and/or any of its LIRs, deem it appropriate
to grant one of RIPE's limited supply of AS numbers to a self-identified
*Belizian* company, particularly when this was the company's first,
last, and *only* AS number?

Because, as you pointed out, they have a network presence in the RIPE 
region.

Wouldn't a LACNIC-issued AS number have
done just as well?  If not, why not?

I am not familiar with LACNIC policies.